Originally Posted by
Thom Walker
The quote I gave from the Texas SOP came from the general provisions, not a specific provision. Using your logic, nothing under the house would be accessible.
"Using your logic, nothing under the house would be accessible."
No, that's not what I'm saying. I'm saying that nothing under the house would be *considered* accessible.
So I stick by original answer to Chip. Is it accessible according to the requirements of the TX SOP? Yes.
And I stick with my original question of your answer - It would be "inaccessible" by the TREC definition.
Is it a location where a slip joint should be used? No, because the INTENT of the plumbing code for "accessible" was not the same as the fubar definition of the TX SOP.
On that we very much agree.
