Here's the deal...Single Family Home with two garage door openers, the first one worked fine when testing the autoreverse (ie. using a 2 x 4 under the center of the door), the second made a loud bang at the opener, the power went out to the opener and I had to manually open the garage door. The opener failed to operated after that. Realtor and client were present during the test, I notified the seller that the opener failed upon testing and he would need to use the door manually until he had the opener repaired.

He called later to say the first garage door opener does not work now. I told him I would come over and look at it for him, but he might want to see if a GFCI was tripped in the garage since it might feed both garage doors, and also check to see if a fuse was blown in the garage door opener in question.

He emailed me that there was no fuse, his "friend" checked it for him, and he was going to call a garage door repair man to fix it and send me the bill. I emailed him back and said that I was not at fault for a garage door opener which failed under testing and may have caused the second garage door opener from working as well. Interesting that he is not asking me to pay for the first one which failed.

Anway, he appears adamant that I am responsible for the repair of the garage door which operated fine when I was there, but ceased to work after the second one failed. Incidentally, there is power to the outlet for the opener (according to him). Would the failed second garage door cause the first to become inoperative and if so, am I responsible for the fix? I have offered to come over and look at it wth the caveat that I am not a garage door repair man and can not diagnose a bad circuit board, faulty wiring, etc.