Originally Posted by
John Dirks Jr
In the case I am inquiring about, the washing maching drain hose runs to the sump pit. If the sump discharges to the yard, that's wrong isn't it? Is there a reference to support that it is incorrect.
I'm sorry I wasnt more clear when I posted the first time.
It is wrong. From the 2006 IRC
P2602.1 General. The water-distribution and drainage system
of any building or premises where plumbing fixtures are
installed shall be connected to a public water supply or sewer
system, respectively, if available. When either a public
water-supply or sewer system, or both, are not available, or
connection to them is not feasible, an individual water supply
or individual (private) sewage-disposal system, or both, shall
be provided.